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The Certified SOC Analyst (CSA v2) (312-39)

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312-39 Exam Dumps
  • Exam Code: 312-39
  • Vendor: ECCouncil
  • Certifications: CSA
  • Exam Name: Certified SOC Analyst (CSA v2)
  • Updated: Mar 25, 2026 Free Updates: 90 days Total Questions: 200 Try Free Demo

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ECCouncil 312-39 Exam Domains Q&A

Certified instructors verify every question for 100% accuracy, providing detailed, step-by-step explanations for each.

Question 1 ECCouncil 312-39
QUESTION DESCRIPTION:

Which of the following is a report writing tool that will help incident handlers to generate efficient reports on detected incidents during incident response process?

  • A.

    threat_note

  • B.

    MagicTree

  • C.

    IntelMQ

  • D.

    Malstrom

Correct Answer & Rationale:

Answer: B

Explanation:

MagicTree is a data management tool designed for penetration testers, incident handlers, and IT security professionals. It is particularly useful for handling the voluminous data typically generated during a security assessment or incident response process. MagicTree allows users to import and aggregate data from various sources, organize it in a structured manner, and generate comprehensive reports. This tool helps in consolidating and making sense of the data, which is crucial for efficient incident handling and reporting.

[References: The EC-Council’s Certified SOC Analyst (C|SA) program covers various tools andtechniques required for effective SOC operations, including report writing and incident handling. While the program’s official curriculum does not specifically list MagicTree, it is a well-known tool in the cybersecurity community for such purposes. For more information on SOC Analyst tools and practices, you can refer to the EC-Council’s official Certified SOC Analyst Training and resources on Top SIEM Tools for SOC Analysts. These resources provide insights into the tools and software that are essential for SOC analysts, which would include report writing tools like MagicTree., , , , , ]

Question 2 ECCouncil 312-39
QUESTION DESCRIPTION:

Mark Reynolds, a SOC analyst at a healthcare organization, is monitoring the SIEM system when he detects a potential security threat: a series of unusual login attempts targeting critical patient data servers. After investigating the alerts and collaborating with the incident response team, the SOC determines that the threat has a “Likely” chance of occurring and could cause “Significant” damage, including operational disruptions, financial loss due to data breaches, and regulatory penalties under HIPAA. Using a standard Risk Matrix, how would this risk be categorized in terms of overall severity?

  • A.

    Medium

  • B.

    Low

  • C.

    High

  • D.

    Very High

Correct Answer & Rationale:

Answer: C

Explanation:

In a standard risk matrix, overall severity is derived by combining likelihood and impact. “Likely” indicates a higher probability (not rare or unlikely), and “Significant” damage indicates a high business impact. In most common 4x4 or 5x5 matrices, pairing a high likelihood with a high impact results in a “High” risk rating (or sometimes “Very High” if both are at the extreme ends like “Almost Certain” and “Catastrophic”). Here, the wording is “Likely” and “Significant,” which strongly maps to high probability and high impact, but not necessarily the highest possible category (which would typically be “Almost Certain” plus “Severe/Catastrophic”). For a healthcare organization under HIPAA, unauthorized access to patient data can trigger regulatory penalties, breach notification obligations, operational disruption, and reputational harm—so the impact is clearly material. Since the SOC has already assessed it as both probable and damaging, the risk rating should drive prioritized response: immediate containment measures, validation of access attempts, and proactive controls (MFA, conditional access, monitoring for lateral movement). Therefore, “High” is the appropriate overall severity classification.

Question 3 ECCouncil 312-39
QUESTION DESCRIPTION:

Which of the following steps of incident handling and response process focus on limiting the scope and extent of an incident?

  • A.

    Containment

  • B.

    Data Collection

  • C.

    Eradication

  • D.

    Identification

Correct Answer & Rationale:

Answer: A

Explanation:

The step in the incident handling and response process that focuses on limiting the scope and extent of an incident is  Containment . This phase aims to isolate affected systems to prevent the spread of the incident and to minimize its impact. Containment strategies may involve disconnecting affected systems from the network, blocking malicious traffic, or taking systems offline.  The goal is to contain the incident quickly to reduce damage and to maintain business operations 1 .

[References: The EC-Council’s Certified Incident Handler (E|CIH) program outlines the incident handling and response process, which includes the containment phase as a critical step. The program provides knowledge and skills necessary to effectively manage and mitigate cybersecurity incidents1, , , ]

Question 4 ECCouncil 312-39
QUESTION DESCRIPTION:

Which of the following attacks causes sudden changes in file extensions or increase in file renames at rapid speed?

  • A.

    Ransomware Attack

  • B.

    DoS Attack

  • C.

    DHCP starvation Attack

  • D.

    File Injection Attack

Correct Answer & Rationale:

Answer: A

Explanation:

[Reference: https://www.netfort.com/category/ransomware-detection/, ]

Question 5 ECCouncil 312-39
QUESTION DESCRIPTION:

In which of the following incident handling and response stages, the root cause of the incident must be found from the forensic results?

  • A.

    Evidence Gathering

  • B.

    Evidence Handling

  • C.

    Eradication

  • D.

    Systems Recovery

Correct Answer & Rationale:

Answer: C

Explanation:

The eradication stage is where the root cause of the incident is determined from the forensic results. This stage involves not only removing the threat from the affected systems but also identifying and fixing the vulnerabilities that were exploited. It’s crucial to understand how the incident occurred to prevent future occurrences. After the containment stage, where the immediate threat is isolated, eradication ensures that the threat is completely removed and that the root cause is addressed.

[References: The EC-Council’s Certified Incident Handler (E|CIH) program outlines the stages of incident handling and response, which include preparation, identification, containment, eradication, recovery, and lessons learned. Theeradication stage specifically deals with eliminating the threat and addressing the root cause based on forensic analysis. This information is covered in the E|CIH program and can be found in the official EC-Council learning resources1., , , , Reference: https://www.eccouncil.org/wp-content/uploads/2019/02/ECIH-V2-Brochure.pdf, ]

Question 6 ECCouncil 312-39
QUESTION DESCRIPTION:

As a SOC Administrator at a mid-sized financial institution, you noticed intermittent network slowdowns and unexplained high memory usage across multiple critical systems. Your initial analysis found no traces of malware, but a forensic investigation revealed unauthorized scheduled tasks that executed during off-peak hours. These tasks ran obfuscated scripts that connected to an external command-and-control (C2) server. Further investigations showed that the adversary had gained access months ago through a compromised VPN account, leveraging stolen credentials from a phishing campaign. Which phase of the Advanced Persistent Threat (APT) lifecycle does this scenario align with?

  • A.

    Cleanup

  • B.

    Initial Intrusion

  • C.

    Search and Exfiltration

  • D.

    Persistence

Correct Answer & Rationale:

Answer: D

Explanation:

This scenario best aligns with Persistence because the attacker established mechanisms to maintain access over time after the initial compromise. The defining evidence is “unauthorized scheduled tasks executed during off-peak hours” running obfuscated scripts and connecting to a C2 server. Scheduled tasks and startup mechanisms are classic persistence techniques that allow an adversary to survive reboots, re-establish footholds, and perform recurring actions (beaconing, payload retrieval, credential harvesting) without continuous interactive access. The scenario explicitly states the adversary gained access months ago via compromised VPN credentials (initial intrusion), but what you are observing now is the long-lived foothold and automated re-entry capability. Cleanup would involve covering tracks and removing evidence; while obfuscation and potential log manipulation can be related, the core described behavior is recurring execution and ongoing C2 communication. Search and exfiltration would focus on data discovery and transfer; while network slowdowns could be related to exfiltration, the most direct indicators here are persistence mechanisms enabling continued control. For SOC response, this phase emphasizes removing persistence artifacts, rotating credentials, and validating no alternate footholds remain.

Question 7 ECCouncil 312-39
QUESTION DESCRIPTION:

A SOC analyst receives an alert indicating that the system time on a critical Windows server was changed at 3:00 AM. There are no scheduled maintenance tasks at this time. Unauthorized time changes can be used to evade security controls, such as altering timestamps to obscure malicious activity. The analyst must identify the relevant event codes that log system time modifications and related suspicious behavior. Which of the following Windows Security Event Codes should the analyst review to investigate potential tampering?

  • A.

    4608 and 4609

  • B.

    4625 and 4634

  • C.

    4616 and 4618

  • D.

    4616 and 4624

Correct Answer & Rationale:

Answer: C

Explanation:

Event ID 4616 is the key Windows Security log event for “system time was changed,” and it is the primary artifact to confirm and investigate time-tampering. It typically includes details such as the previous time, the new time, and the account or process context responsible, which helps the SOC determine whether the change was authorized (maintenance) or suspicious (off-hours, unusual account, unexpected host). Event ID 4618 is useful as a companion signal because it indicates monitored security-relevant conditions and can help reveal related suspicious behavior around auditing or security event patterns that may coincide with timestamp manipulation. In practice, SOC analysts correlate the time-change event with surrounding authentication events, privilege use, and process creation telemetry to identify the actor and intent. The other options do not directly target the time-change activity: 4608/4609 relate to system startup/shutdown; 4625 is failed logon and 4634 is logoff; 4624 is successful logon (useful context, but not the event that records the time modification itself). Therefore, the best pairing for investigating time tampering in the options provided is 4616 and 4618.

Question 8 ECCouncil 312-39
QUESTION DESCRIPTION:

Emmanuel is working as a SOC analyst in a company named Tobey Tech. The manager of Tobey Tech recently recruited an Incident Response Team (IRT) for his company. In the process of collaboration with the IRT, Emmanuel just escalated an incident to the IRT.

What is the first step that the IRT will do to the incident escalated by Emmanuel?

  • A.

    Incident Analysis and Validation

  • B.

    Incident Recording

  • C.

    Incident Classification

  • D.

    Incident Prioritization

Correct Answer & Rationale:

Answer: A

Explanation:

 When an incident is escalated to the Incident Response Team (IRT), the first step they undertake is  Incident Analysis and Validation . This step is crucial to ensure that the incident is genuine and to understand its nature and scope. The IRT will analyze the information provided by the SOC analyst, validate the incident against known patterns or indicators of compromise, and gather additional information if necessary. This initial analysis helps in determining the severity of the incident and guides the subsequent steps in the incident response process.

[References:, The Key Role of Incident Response Teams (IRTs) - Zenduty1, A Practical Approach to Incident Management Escalation - Exigence2, ITIL Incident Management: Best Practices for Escalation and Resolution - LinkedIn3, , , , , ]

Question 9 ECCouncil 312-39
QUESTION DESCRIPTION:

An attacker, in an attempt to exploit the vulnerability in the dynamically generated welcome page, inserted code at the end of the company’s URL as follows:

http://technosoft.com.com/ < script > alert("WARNING: The application has encountered an error"); < /script > . Identify the attack demonstrated in the above scenario.

  • A.

    Cross-site Scripting Attack

  • B.

    SQL Injection Attack

  • C.

    Denial-of-Service Attack

  • D.

    Session Attack

Correct Answer & Rationale:

Answer: A

Explanation:

The attack demonstrated in the scenario is a Cross-site Scripting (XSS) attack. This is evident from the attacker’s action of inserting a  < script >  tag into the URL, which is a common technique used in XSS attacks to execute malicious scripts in the context of the victim’s browser. The script in the URL is designed to display an alert box with a warning message, which is a typical behavior of XSS to show that the attacker can execute JavaScript in the user’s browser session.

References  The answer can be verified through EC-Council’s Certified SOC Analyst (CSA) course materials and study guides, which cover various types of cyber attacks, including XSS, and their characteristics.

Question 10 ECCouncil 312-39
QUESTION DESCRIPTION:

Identify the password cracking attempt involving a precomputed dictionary of plaintext passwords and their corresponding hash values to crack the password.

  • A.

    Dictionary Attack

  • B.

    Rainbow Table Attack

  • C.

    Bruteforce Attack

  • D.

    Syllable Attack

Correct Answer & Rationale:

Answer: B

Explanation:

A Rainbow Table Attack involves using a precomputed table of hash values for every possible combination of characters for a given password policy. This table, known as a rainbow table, is then used to look up the corresponding plaintext password for a given hash value. The process involves the following steps:

    Precomputation:  Generate the rainbow table by computing hash values for all possible password combinations according to the password policy.

    Storage:  Store these precomputed hash values in a table, associating each with its plaintext password.

    Lookup:  When a hash value is obtained during a password cracking attempt, search the rainbow table for the corresponding plaintext password.

    Match:  If a match is found, the plaintext password associated with the hash value is the cracked password.

Rainbow tables are effective because they trade storage space for time, allowing for quicker password cracking compared to brute-force or dictionary attacks, which compute hash values on the fly.

[References: The EC-Council’s materials on password cracking techniques discuss various methods including dictionary attacks, brute-force attacks, and rainbow table attacks. Specifically, the EC-Council Learning Paths and Skill Packs provide detailed insights into these techniques, emphasizing the use of rainbow tables as a method of cracking passwords by comparing precomputed hash values to those obtained from a system12. Additionally, EC-Council’s CyberQ platform offers practical exercises related to password cracking, including the use of rainbow tables2., , , , Reference: https://www2.cs.arizona.edu/~collberg/Teaching/466-566/2012/Resources/presentations/2012/ topic7-final/report.pdf, ]

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How many questions are on the CSA 312-39 exam?

The 312-39 ECCouncil exam usually comprises 100 to 120 questions. However, the number of questions may vary. The reason is the format of the exam that may include unscored and experimental questions sometimes. Mostly, the actual exam consists of various question formats, including multiple-choice, simulations, and drag-and-drop.

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