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The Cisco Certified Design Expert (CCDE v3.1) (400-007)

Passing Cisco CCDE v3.0 exam ensures for the successful candidate a powerful array of professional and personal benefits. The first and the foremost benefit comes with a global recognition that validates your knowledge and skills, making possible your entry into any organization of your choice.

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400-007 Exam Dumps
  • Exam Code: 400-007
  • Vendor: Cisco
  • Certifications: CCDE v3.0
  • Exam Name: Cisco Certified Design Expert (CCDE v3.1)
  • Updated: Jun 22, 2026 Free Updates: 90 days Total Questions: 349 Try Free Demo

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Coverage of Official Cisco 400-007 Exam Domains

Our curriculum is meticulously mapped to the Cisco official blueprint.

Business Strategy Design (25%)

Master the alignment of network architecture with organizational goals, evaluating trade-offs between CAPEX/OPEX, risk/reward, and environmental sustainability in design recommendations.

Control, Data, Management Plane, and Operational Design (30%)

Deep dive into the interaction of planes, automation/orchestration design, and software-defined architectures (SD-WAN, overlay/underlay) for enterprise fabrics

Network Design (25%)

Architecting resilient, scalable, and secure modular networks across campus, WAN, and Service Provider environments, considering both technical and operational constraints.

Service Design (10%)

Designing solutions for QoS, multicast, and VPNs to support business-critical applications, including cloud and hybrid service placement strategies.

Security Design (10%)

Integrating defense-in-depth strategies, threat mitigation, and regulatory compliance into the core network architecture without compromising usability or performance.

Cisco 400-007 Exam Domains Q&A

Certified instructors verify every question for 100% accuracy, providing detailed, step-by-step explanations for each.

Question 1 Cisco 400-007
QUESTION DESCRIPTION:

Which extensions to GRE tunneling provide session tracking and in-order packet delivery in exchange for additional state stored in tunnel endpoints?

  • A.

    GRE Protocol Type and Checksum extension fields.

  • B.

    GRE Version and Reserved0 extension fields.

  • C.

    No extension fields are available in the GRE header to track session data and packet sequences.

  • D.

    GRE Key and Sequence number extensions.

Correct Answer & Rationale:

Answer: D

Explanation:

D (GRE Key and Sequence Number extensions):The GRE Key field provides session identification for distinguishing between multiple GRE tunnels. The Sequence Number extension allows endpoints to track packet ordering and detect lost or out-of-order packets, enhancing reliability at the tunnel level if required.

Other options explained:

A: Protocol Type identifies payload type; Checksum detects errors but doesn ' t provide sequencing.

B: GRE Version and Reserved0 fields are not used for session or sequencing.

C: GRE does support optional extensions, contrary to this statement.

Question 2 Cisco 400-007
QUESTION DESCRIPTION:

Which mechanism enables small, unmanaged switches to plug into ports of access switches without risking switch loops?

  • A.

    PortFast

  • B.

    UDLD

  • C.

    Root guard

  • D.

    BPDU guard

Correct Answer & Rationale:

Answer: D

Explanation:

When unmanaged switches are connected to access ports, there ' s a risk that they may start participating in Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) or introduce loops. BPDU Guard is the most effective mechanism to mitigate this risk:

BPDU Guard disables a port immediately upon receiving any BPDU, ensuring that only end hosts (non-switch devices) are connected to access ports.

This protects the stability of the STP topology by preventing accidental or malicious introduction of switches into the Layer 2 domain.

Other options explained:

A (PortFast): Accelerates port transition to forwarding state but does not protect against loops caused by BPDUs.

B (UDLD): Detects unidirectional physical link failures but not STP participation.

C (Root guard): Prevents the connected device from becoming a root bridge but still allows BPDUs.

Question 3 Cisco 400-007
QUESTION DESCRIPTION:

A network security team uses a purpose-built tool to actively monitor the campus network, applications, and user activity. The team also analyzes enterprise telemetry data from IPFIX data records that are received from devices in the campus network. Which action can be taken based on the augmented data?

  • A.

    Reduction in time to detect and respond to threats

  • B.

    Integration with an incident response plan

  • C.

    Adoption and improvement of threat-detection response

  • D.

    Asset identification and grouping decisions

Correct Answer & Rationale:

Answer: A

Explanation:

A (Faster detection and response):Telemetry like IPFIX enables real-time network visibility and anomaly detection, significantly improving Mean Time to Detect (MTTD) and Mean Time to Respond (MTTR).

Other options explained:

B: IPFIX feeds data to incident response, but doesn ' t directly integrate plans.

C: IPFIX improves detection but primarily reduces response time.

D: Asset identification typically uses CMDB or inventory tools, not IPFIX alone.

Question 4 Cisco 400-007
QUESTION DESCRIPTION:

Company XYZ is running SNMPv1 in their network and understands that it has some flaws. They want to change the security design to implement SNMPv3 in the network. Which network threat is SNMPv3 effective against?

  • A.

    Man-in-the-middle attack

  • B.

    Masquerade threats

  • C.

    DDoS attack

  • D.

    Brute force dictionary attack

Correct Answer & Rationale:

Answer: B

Explanation:

SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c use plaintext community strings and lack built-in encryption or authentication, making them vulnerable to various attacks, including spoofing and message tampering. SNMPv3 addresses these weaknesses by introducing:

Authentication (to prevent impersonation or " masquerade " )

Encryption (privacy)

Message integrity

“Masquerade threats” involve an attacker pretending to be a trusted source, which SNMPv3 can prevent via cryptographic authentication mechanisms.

Although SNMPv3 does provide improved security features like integrity and privacy, it is not specifically designed to mitigate volumetric attacks like DDoS or dictionary brute-force. SNMPv3 does not inherently stop man-in-the-middle attacks unless secure key exchanges and trusted paths are fully enforced, which may require additional protocols.

==========

Question 5 Cisco 400-007
QUESTION DESCRIPTION:

A business requirement stating that failure of WAN access for dual circuits into an MPLS provider for a Data Centre cannot happen due to related service credits that would need to be paid has led to diversely routed circuits to different points of presence on the provider’s network. What should a network designer also consider as part of the requirement?

  • A.

    Provision of an additional MPLS provider

  • B.

    Out of band access to the MPLS routers

  • C.

    Ensuring all related remote branches are dual-homed to the MPLS network

  • D.

    Dual PSUs and Supervisors on each MPLS router

Correct Answer & Rationale:

Answer: A

Explanation:

A (Additional MPLS provider):True path diversity includes provider diversity to eliminate the possibility of shared failures within a single provider’s infrastructure. Multiple providers minimize correlated failures, increasing WAN availability.

Other options explained:

B: Out-of-band management improves operational access but doesn ' t address WAN availability.

C: Dual-homing branches is valuable but not directly related to the data center’s WAN failure condition.

D: Hardware redundancy improves local device availability but doesn ' t mitigate WAN failures.

Question 6 Cisco 400-007
QUESTION DESCRIPTION:

A network hacker introduces a packet with duplicate sequence numbers to disrupt an IPsec session. During this, high-priority traffic is transmitted. What design parameter helps mitigate this?

  • A.

    Classify and mark duplicate sequence packets

  • B.

    Apply anti-replay window 4096

  • C.

    Restrict keyword in IPsec tunnel

  • D.

    Increase QoS shape policy

Correct Answer & Rationale:

Answer: B

Explanation:

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

B: The IPsec anti-replay mechanism protects against packet injection and replay attacks by rejecting packets outside the anti-replay window. Increasing the anti-replay window (e.g., to 4096) allows legitimate packets with slightly reordered or delayed sequence numbers to be accepted—especially critical during bursts or with asymmetric paths.

Other options:

A: QoS marking does not prevent replay.

C: Tunnel keyword restrictions don ' t address replay attacks.

D: Shaping affects traffic rate, not sequence validation.

Question 7 Cisco 400-007
QUESTION DESCRIPTION:

Company XYZ has a multicast domain that spans across multiple autonomous systems. The company wants a simplified and controlled approach to interconnecting multicast domains. Which technology is the best fit?

  • A.

    MSDP

  • B.

    PIM SSM

  • C.

    MPLS

  • D.

    PIM sparse mode

Correct Answer & Rationale:

Answer: A

Explanation:

A (MSDP - Multicast Source Discovery Protocol):MSDP allows different autonomous systems to share multicast source information while maintaining their own PIM Sparse Mode domains. It simplifies interdomain multicast routing without requiring full mesh peering or shared RPs between domains.

Other options explained:

B: SSM does not require MSDP but limits use to source-specific groups.

C: MPLS is a transport technology, not multicast control-plane solution.

D: PIM-SM is used within a domain, not across multiple autonomous systems.

Question 8 Cisco 400-007
QUESTION DESCRIPTION:

Which two statements describe network automation and network orchestration? (Choose two.)

  • A.

    Network automation does not provide governance or policy management.

  • B.

    Network automation spans multiple network services, vendors, and environments.

  • C.

    Network orchestration is done through programmatic REST APIs enabling automation across devices and management platforms.

  • D.

    Provisioning network services is an example of network automation.

  • E.

    Network orchestration is used to run single, low-level tasks without human intervention.

Correct Answer & Rationale:

Answer: B, D

Explanation:

B (Automation spans multiple vendors and services):Automation tools can handle provisioning, configuration, monitoring, and integration across heterogeneous vendor networks.

D (Provisioning services = automation):Routine tasks like service provisioning, device onboarding, or configuration are handled by automation systems to reduce operational workload.

Other options explained:

A: Automation can absolutely include policy enforcement if integrated properly.

C: Orchestration governs higher-level workflows across multiple domains and uses APIs but is not limited to basic automation tasks.

E: Orchestration coordinates complex workflows, not just single low-level tasks.

Question 9 Cisco 400-007
QUESTION DESCRIPTION:

If the desire is to connect virtual network functions together to accommodate different types of network service connectivity, what must be deployed?

  • A.

    Bridging

  • B.

    Service Chaining

  • C.

    Linking

  • D.

    Daisy Chaining

  • E.

    Switching

Correct Answer & Rationale:

Answer: B

Explanation:

In modern network architectures, particularly those using NFV (Network Function Virtualization),Service Chainingis used to direct traffic through a sequence of virtualized network functions (VNFs)—such as firewalls, load balancers, NAT devices, etc.—based on service requirements.

Service chaining allows:

Dynamic or policy-based redirection of traffic through VNFs

Simplified orchestration of network services

Scalability and flexibility across multi-tenant or virtualized environments

CCDE v3.1 emphasizes service chaining as a key enabler in cloud-native and virtualized architectures, ensuring services are efficiently composed based on application or security needs.

Why other options are incorrect:

A and E (Bridging/Switching): Refer to traditional Layer 2 forwarding and do not provide VNF sequencing logic.

C and D: “Linking” and “Daisy chaining” are not standard or scalable methods in NFV environments.

Question 10 Cisco 400-007
QUESTION DESCRIPTION:

Which two characteristics are associated with 802.1s? (Choose two)

  • A.

    802.1s supports up to 1024 instances of 802.1

  • B.

    802.1s is a Cisco enhancement to 802.1w.

  • C.

    802.1s provides for faster convergence over 802.1D and PVST+.

  • D.

    CPU and memory requirements are the highest of all spanning-tree STP implementations.

  • E.

    802.1s maps multiple VLANs to the same spanning-tree instance.

Correct Answer & Rationale:

Answer: C, E

Explanation:

C (Faster convergence): 802.1s (Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol – MSTP) improves convergence times over legacy 802.1D (STP) and PVST+ by leveraging the rapid convergence benefits of 802.1w (RSTP).

E (Maps multiple VLANs): MST allows multiple VLANs to share the same spanning-tree instance, reducing the overall number of instances required and improving scalability.

Other options explained:

A: The standard supports 64 MST instances, not 1024.

B: 802.1w (RSTP) is the basis for 802.1s; Cisco’s proprietary enhancement was originally PVST+.

D: MST actually reduces CPU/memory compared to running multiple instances of PVST+.

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